100-490 Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 - RSTECH Exam

 

Exam overview
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.

Exam preparation
E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0

Practice
Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)

Cisco Modeling labs

Exam Description:
The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH 100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge
1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH

20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware
2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus 7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst 6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000 Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800 Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)

29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation
3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE

26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge
4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex, speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted loopback)

QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?

A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)

A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.

Correct Answer: AC

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2V0-31.20 Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.1 Exam

 

Exam Details
The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.1 Exam (2V0-31.20), which leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation 2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 140 minutes, which includes a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 135 minutes.

Exam Delivery
This is a proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers, world-wide. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.

Certification Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has 6-12 months hands-on experience installing and configuring vRealize Automation. The candidate is typically an administrator who is capable of performing a standard deployment of and managing vRealize Automation using Lifecycle Manager and troubleshooting a vRealize Automation 8.1 solution. The candidate possesses an understanding of basic cloud concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy, storage, networking and security. The candidate has working knowledge of each of the individual components, including Cloud Assembly Services, Service Broker, Code Stream and vRealize Orchestrator. The candidate has working knowledge of extensibility, identity and access management and basic knowledge of Kubernetes clusters and zones.

Exam Sections
VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

There are sections with no testable objectives in this version of the exam and those are noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering will be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 - Describe the Architecture of vRealize Automation
Objective 1.2 - Differentiate between vRealize Automation and vRealize Automation Cloud
Objective 1.3 – Describe the Services Offered by vRealize Automation
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 - Describe the Different Types of vRealize Automation deployments
Objective 4.2 - Prepare the Pre-requisites for an Installation (DNS, NTP, Service Accounts etc.)
Objective 4.3 - Perform a Standard Deployment using vRealize Easy Installer
Objective 4.4 - Configure vRealize Automation using Quickstart
Objective 4.5 - Perform Manual Installation using Lifecycle Manager
Objective 4.6 - Configure Identity Sources
Objective 4.7 - Configure Identity and Access Management
Objective 4.8 - Set up Cloud Accounts
Objective 4.9 - Add Cloud Zones
Objective 4.10 - Add Projects
Objective 4.11 - Add Image Mappings
Objective 4.12 - Add Flavor Mappings
Objective 4.13 - Add Network Profiles
Objective 4.14 - Add Storage Profiles
Objective 4.15 - Describe the Different Out of the Box Integrations Available with vRealize Automation
Objective 4.16 - Integrate vRealize Automation with vRealize Operations
Objective 4.17 - Describe the Onboarding Process
Objective 4.18 - Describe Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)
Objective 4.19 – Describe the Different Types of Tags in vRealize Automation
Objective 4.20 - Configure Capability Tags
Objective 4.21 - Configure Multi-Tenancy
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Collect Log Bundles
Objective 6.2 - Describe vracli Command Options
Objective 6.3 - Describe kubectl Command Options
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot vRealize Automation Configuration Errors
Objective 6.5 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Objective 6.6 - Monitor Deployments
Objective 6.7 - Monitor vRealize Orchestrator Workflow Execution
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Manage the Identity and Access Management Tab
Objective 7.2 - Manage Cloud Accounts
Objective 7.3 - Manage Cloud Zones
Objective 7.4 - Manage Projects
Objective 7.5 - Manage Image Mappings
Objective 7.6 - Manage Flavor Mappings
Objective 7.7 - Manage Capability and Constraint Tags
Objective 7.8 - Manage Storage Profiles
Objective 7.9 - Manage Network Profiles
Objective 7.10 - Create and Manage Blueprints
Objective 7.11 - Create and Manage Blueprint Versions
Objective 7.12 - Manage Extensibility/Subscription
Objective 7.13 - Deploy Catalog Items
Objective 7.14 - Manage Deployments
Objective 7.15 - Describe Kubernetes Clusters
Objective 7.16 - Customize a Deployment using cloudConfig and cloud-init
Objective 7.17 - Create Service Broker Content Sources
Objective 7.18 - Configure Content Sharing
Objective 7.19 - Create and Manage Custom Forms
Objective 7.20 - Manage Policies
Objective 7.21 – Manage Notifications

QUESTION 1
When considering the architecture of a clustered deployment of VMware vRealize Automation, which two components will require the configuration of an external load balancer? (Choose two.)

A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
B. vRealize Automation
C. VMware Identity Manager
D. PostgreSQL Database
E. vCenter Server

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
An administrator is tasked with creating cloud zones for an existing Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud account.
Which type of compute resource can be added to the cloud zone?

A. Cluster
B. Elastic Cloud Compute (EC2) Instances
C. Availability Zones
D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator configures cloud accounts for vSphere, Amazon Web Services and Google Cloud Platform.
Each public cloud account has a single region configured, with a single cloud zone associated with each.
Company policy states that all development workloads should be deployed to the public cloud. The
administrator wants to ensure that when creating blueprints for this project an appropriate constraint tag is
specified to meet the placement policy and that App-Dev users are allowed to select whether to deploy the
machine to production or development. The tagging strategy states that development environments should be
tagged with “dev” and production environments should be tagged “prod”.
Which two actions should the administrator take to ensure the objective is met? (Choose two.)

A. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:prod as the key/value pair.
B. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:prod as the key/value pair.
C. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:dev as the key/value pair.
D. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:dev as the key/value pair.
E. Add a capability tag to each cloud account, using env:prod as the key/value pair.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
What are two purposes of projects in vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)

A. Add cloud accounts
B. Map compute resources to users and groups
C. Organize image mappings
D. Create tenants
E. Configure custom naming

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which vRealize Suite product helps an administrator understand the monetary impact of individual deployments and manage costs in vRealize Automation?

A. vRealize Log Insight
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Network Insight
D. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager

Correct Answer: D

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Fortinet NSE5_FAZ-6.2 Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2

 

Description
The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security devices.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 5 Certification

We recommend this course for network and security professionals who require the expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices.

Program Requirements
You must successfully pass a minimum of any two Fortinet NSE 5 certification exams:

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiClient-EMS
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiEDR (coming soon)
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSIEM
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSOAR (coming soon)

To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the corresponding NSE 5 product courses. The courses are optional.

About the NSE 5 Exams
These exams are available at Pearson VUE test center.
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiClient 6.0

Exam series: NSE5_FCT-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiClient 6.0
Status: Registration ends August 31, 2020

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSIEM 5.1
Exam series: NSE5_FSM-5.1
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiSIEM 5.1
Status: Registration ends September 30, 2020

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 6.2
Exam series: NSE5_FMG-6.2
Number of questions: 35
Time allowed to complete: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 6.2
Status: Available

Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2
Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.2
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiAnalyzer 6.2
Status: Available

QUESTION 1
Which two of the following must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to email a FortiAnalyzer report externally?
(Choose two.)

A. Mail server
B. Output profile
C. SFTP server
D. Report scheduling

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
For which two purposes would you use the command set log checksum? (Choose two.)

A. To help protect against man-in-the-middle attacks during log upload from FortiAnalyzer to an SFTP server
B. To prevent log modification or tampering
C. To encrypt log communications
D. To send an identical set of logs to a second logging server

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed.
What is the recommended method to replace the disk?

A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk
B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level
C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still running
D. Perform a hot swap

Correct Answer: D

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BCBA Board Certified Behavior Analyst Exam

 

BCBA
The purpose of the Board Certified Behavior Analyst® (BCBA®) examination is to assess knowledge of the BCBA/BCaBA Task List (4th ed.) at a level consistent with that of an entry-level behavior analyst. Before taking the BCBA examination, you must apply to the BACB and provide the requested documentation showing that you have met all eligibility requirements.

The BCBA examination is comprised of 160 multiple-choice questions, 10 of which are ungraded pilot questions. Each question has four possible answers. You have four hours to complete the examination.

Complete applications* are accepted on a continual basis. When your application for initial certification is approved, you will receive an "authorization to test" email, which will include scheduling instructions. Once you receive that email, you may schedule your certification examination online with Pearson Vue and select a date, time, and location that works for you.

*A completed application includes:
Full payment received
Online application submitted and complete
All supporting documents (e.g., university transcript, Experience Verification Forms) and any additional documentation (e.g., degree equivalency evaluation documentation, coursework evaluation documentation, degree evaluation documentation) received.

Content Development
The BCBA examination reflects the best practices in behavior analysis. Industry experts develop the examination, which is based on the results of a formal Job Task Analysis. The BACB follows nationally accepted standards for test development that include the use of subject matter experts and extensive surveys.

QUESTION 1
A behavior analyst is adhering to which underlying assumption of behavior analysis when she conducts several tests of her treatment before she writes it in a formal behavior program?

A. Determinism
B. Law of parsimony
C. Empiricism
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Providing a complete description of one’s procedures in a behavior analytic study of classroom management techniques is adhering to which dimensions of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Describing behavior program procedures in terms of the basic principles of behavior is adhering to which dimension of behavior analysis?

A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
When asked why a certain behavior happened, the behavior analyst states that the behavior “came out of nowhere.” If the behavior analyst meant what he said, he is violating the assumption of
__________________.

A. Philosophical doubt
B. Determinism
C. Technological
D. Being conceptually systematic

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is NOT a dimension of applied behavior analysis?

A. Effective
B. Technological
C. Applied
D. Empirical

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A behavior analyst is measuring the time it takes for a client to say, “You’re welcome” after the staff says,
“Thank you.” The behavior analyst is measuring __________________.

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Inter-response time
D. Latency

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which measure would probably be the best measure for crying?

A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Percentage
D. Latency

Correct Answer: B

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DP-300 Administering Relational Databases on Microsoft Azure (beta) Exam

Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top of Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Azure data services.

The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Microsoft Azure data services and Microsoft SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.

This role is responsible for management, availability, security, and performance monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data platform solutions.

Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance of beta exams.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator Associate

Skills measured
Plan and implement data platform resources (15-20%)
Implement a secure environment (15-20%)
Monitor and optimize operational resources (15-20%)
Optimize query performance (5-10%)
Perform automation of tasks (10-15%)
Plan and implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment (15-20%)
Perform administration by using T-SQL (10-15%)

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management specialists that  manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top of SQL Server and Azure Data  Services.

The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Azure Data Services and SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.

This role is responsible for management, availability, security and performance monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data platform solutions.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how  we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Plan and Implement Data Platform Resources (15-20%)
Deploy resources by using manual methods
• deploy database offerings on selected platforms
• configure customized deployment templates
• apply patches and updates for hybrid and IaaS deployment


Recommend an appropriate database offering based on specific requirements
• evaluate requirements for the deployment
• evaluate the functional benefits/impact of possible database offerings
• evaluate the scalability of the possible database offering
• evaluate the HA/DR of the possible database offering
• evaluate the security aspects of the possible database offering

Configure resources for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL database/elastic pools for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL managed instances for scale and performance
• configure SQL Server in Azure VMs for scale and performance
• calculate resource requirements
• evaluate database partitioning techniques, such as database sharding

Evaluate a strategy for moving to Azure
• evaluate requirements for the migration
• evaluate offline or online migration strategies
• evaluate requirements for the upgrade
• evaluate offline or online upgrade strategies

Implement a migration or upgrade strategy for moving to Azure
• implement an online migration strategy
• implement an offline migration strategy
• implement an online upgrade strategy
• implement an offline upgrade strategy

Implement a Secure Environment (15-20%)

Configure database authentication by using platform and database tools
• configure Azure AD authentication
• create users from Azure AD identities
• configure security principals

Configure database authorization by using platform and database tools
• configure database and object-level permissions using graphical tools
• apply principle of least privilege for all securables

Implement security for data at rest
• implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
• implement object-level encryption
• implement Dynamic Data Masking
• implement Azure Key Vault and disk encryption for Azure VMs

Implement security for data in transit
• configure SQL DB and database-level firewall rules
• implement Always Encrypted
• configure Azure Data Gateway

Implement compliance controls for sensitive data
• apply a data classification strategy
• configure server and database audits
• implement data change tracking
• perform vulnerability assessment

Monitor and Optimize Operational Resources (15-20%)

Monitor activity and performance
• prepare an operational performance baseline
• determine sources for performance metrics
• interpret performance metrics
• assess database performance by using Azure SQL Database Intelligent Performance
• configure and monitor activity and performance at the infrastructure, server, service, and
database levels

Implement performance-related maintenance tasks
• implement index maintenance tasks
• implement statistics maintenance tasks
• configure database auto-tuning
• automate database maintenance tasks
o Azure SQL agent jobs, Azure automation, SQL server agent jobs

• manage storage capacity

Identify performance-related issues
• configure Query Store to collect performance data
• identify sessions that cause blocking
• assess growth/fragmentation of databases and logs
• assess performance-related database configuration parameters
o including AutoClose, AutoShrink, AutoGrowth

Configure resources for optimal performance
• configure storage and infrastructure resources
o optimize IOPS, throughput, and latency
o optimize tempdb performance
o optimize data and log files for performance

• configure server and service account settings for performance
• configure Resource Governor for performance

Configure a user database for optimal performance
• implement database-scoped configuration
• configure compute resources for scaling
• configure Intelligent Query Processing (IQP)


Optimize Query Performance (5-10%)

Review query plans

• determine the appropriate type of execution plan
o live Query Statistics, Actual Execution Plan, Estimated Execution Plan, Showplan



• identify problem areas in execution plans
• extract query plans from the Query Store


Evaluate performance improvements

• determine the appropriate Dynamic Management Views (DMVs) to gather query
performance information
• identify performance issues using DMVs
• identify and implement index changes for queries
• recommend query construct modifications based on resource usage
• assess the use of hints for query performance


Review database table and index design

• identify data quality issues with duplication of data
• identify normal form of database
• assess index design for performance
• validate data types defined for columns
• recommend table and index storage including filegroups
• evaluate table partitioning strategy
• evaluate the use of compression for tables and indexes


Perform Automation of Tasks (10-15%)

Create scheduled tasks

• manage schedules for regular maintenance jobs
• configure multi-server automation



• configure notifications for task success/failure/non-completion


Evaluate and implement an alert and notification strategy

• create event notifications based on metrics
• create event notifications for Azure resources
• create alerts for server configuration changes
• create tasks that respond to event notifications


Manage and automate tasks in Azure

• perform automated deployment methods for resources
• automate Backups
• automate performance tuning and patching
• implement policies by using automated evaluation modes


Plan and Implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
Environment (15-20%)

Recommend an HADR strategy for a data platform solution

• recommend HADR strategy based on RPO/RTO requirements
• evaluate HADR for hybrid deployments
• evaluate Azure-specific HADR solutions
• identify resources for HADR solutions


Test an HADR strategy by using platform, OS and database tools

• test HA by using failover
• test DR by using failover or restore


Perform backup and restore a database by using database tools

• perform a database backup with options
• perform a database restore with options
• perform a database restore to a point in time
• configure long-term backup retention


Configure DR by using platform and database tools

• configure replication
• configure Azure Site Recovery for a database offering


Configure HA using platform, OS and database tools


• create an Availability Group
• integrate a database into an Availability Group
• configure quorum options for a Windows Server Failover Cluster
• configure an Availability Group listener


Perform Administration by Using T-SQL (10-15%)

Examine system health

• evaluate database health using DMVs
• evaluate server health using DMVs
• perform database consistency checks by using DBCC


Monitor database configuration by using T-SQL

• assess proper database autogrowth configuration
• report on database free space
• review database configuration options


Perform backup and restore a database by using T-SQL

• prepare databases for AlwaysOn Availability Groups
• perform transaction log backup
• perform restore of user databases
• perform database backups with options


Manage authentication by using T-SQL

• manage certificates
• manage security principals


Manage authorization by using T-SQL

• configure permissions for users to access database objects
• configure permissions by using custom roles

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter. The instance contains a 4-TB database named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?

A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have 20 Azure SQL databases provisioned by using the vCore purchasing model.
You plan to create an Azure SQL Database elastic pool and add the 20 databases.
Which three metrics should you use to size the elastic pool to meet the demands of your workload? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. total size of all the databases
B. geo-replication support
C. number of concurrently peaking databases * peak CPU utilization per database
D. maximum number of concurrent sessions for all the databases
E. total number of databases * average CPU utilization per database

Correct Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 3
You have a new Azure SQL database. The database contains a column that stores confidential information.
You need to track each time values from the column are returned in a query. The tracking information must be
stored for 365 days from the date the query was executed.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Turn on auditing and write audit logs to an Azure Storage account.
B. Add extended properties to the column.
C. Turn on Advanced Data Security for the Azure SQL server.
D. Apply sensitivity labels named Highly Confidential to the column.
E. Turn on Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).

Correct Answer: A,C,D


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Google Professional Collaboration Engineer Exam

Professional Collaboration Engineer
A Professional Collaboration Engineer transforms business objectives into tangible configurations, policies, and security practices as they relate to users, content, and integrations. Collaboration Engineers leverage their understanding of their organization’s mail routing and identity management infrastructure to enable efficient and secure communication and data access. Operating with an engineering and solutions mindset, they use tools, programming languages, and APIs to automate workflows. They look for opportunities to educate end users and increase operational efficiency while advocating for G Suite and the Google toolset.

The Professional Collaboration Engineer exam assesses your ability to:
Plan and implement G Suite authorization and access
Manage user, resource, and Team Drive lifecycles
Manage mail
Control and configure G Suite services
Configure and manage endpoint access
Monitor organizational operations
Advance G Suite adoption and collaboration

Related job roles: IT systems administrator, cloud solutions engineer, enterprise collaboration engineer, systems engineer
About this certification exam
Length: 2 hours
Registration fee: $200 (plus tax where applicable)
Languages: English, Japanese
Exam format: Multiple choice and multiple select, taken in person at a test center. Locate a test center near you.
Prerequisites: None
Recommended experience: 3+ years of industry experience including 1+ year G Suite administration experience.

1. Review the exam guide
The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on the exam. Review the exam guide to determine if your skills align with the topics on the exam.

2. Training
G Suite logo
G Suite Administration Specialization
Register
Professional Collaboration Engineer Practice Exam

Check your readiness for the Collaboration Engineer exam
Learn more

3. Hands-on practice
This exam is designed to test technical skills related to the job role. In addition to being familiar with the day-to-day tasks carried out by the G Suite administrator, use the hands-on labs available on Qwiklabs to learn about G Suite integrations to level up your knowledge and skills.

4. Additional resources
In-depth discussions on the concepts and critical components of G Suite:

5. Assess your knowledge
Familiarize yourself with the types of questions that will be on the exam. Check your readiness to take this exam.

6. Schedule your exam
Register and find a location near you.


QUESTION 1
Madeupcorp.com is in the process of migrating from a third-party email system to G Suite. The VP of
Marketing is concerned that her team already administers the corporate AdSense, AdWords, and YouTube
channels using their @madeupcorp.com email addresses, but has not tracked which users have access to
which service. You need to ensure that there is no disruption.
What should you do?

A. Run the Transfer Tool for Unmanaged users.
B. Use a Google Form to survey the Marketing department users.
C. Assure the VP that there is no action required to configure G Suite.
D. Contact Google Enterprise Support to identify affected users.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company has an OU that contains your sales team and an OU that contains your market research team.
The sales team is often a target of mass email from legitimate senders, which is distracting to their job duties.
The market research team also receives that email content, but they want it because it often contains
interesting market analysis or competitive intelligence. Constant Contact is often used as the source of these
messages. Your company also uses Constant Contact for your own mass email marketing. You need to set
email controls at the Sales OU without affecting your own outgoing email or the market research OU.
What should you do?

A. Create a blocked senders list as the Sales OU that contains the mass email sender addresses, but bypass this setting for Constant Contact emails.
B. Create a blocked senders list at the root level, and then an approved senders list at the Market Research OU, both containing the mass email sender addresses.
C. Create a blocked senders list at the Sales OU that contains the mass email sender addresses.
D. Create an approved senders list at the Market Research OU that contains the mass email sender addresses.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your organization is part of a highly regulated industry with a very high turnover. In order to recycle licenses
for new employees and comply with data retention regulations, it has been determined that certain G Suite
data should be stored in a separate backup environment.
How should you store data for this situation?

A. Use routing rules to dual-deliver mail to an on-premises SMTP server and G Suite.
B. Write a script and use G Suite APIs to access and download user data.
C. Use a third-party tool to configure secure backup of G Suite data.
D. Train users to use Google Takeout and store their archives locally.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your organization is on G Suite Enterprise and allows for external sharing of Google Drive files to facilitate
collaboration with other G Suite customers. Recently you have had several incidents of files and folders being
broadly shared with external users and groups. Your chief security officer needs data on the scope of external
sharing and ongoing alerting so that external access does not have to be disabled.
What two actions should you take to support the chief security officer's request? (Choose two.)

A. Review who has viewed files using the Google Drive Activity Dashboard.
B. Create an alert from Drive Audit reports to notify of external file sharing.
C. Review total external sharing in the Aggregate Reports section.
D. Create a custom Dashboard for external sharing in the Security Investigation Tool.
E. Automatically block external sharing using DLP rules.

Correct Answer: B,E
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