Exam Number: 1Z0-1087-20
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: Exam has been validated against Oracle Account Reconciliation 20.10
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional): In the subscription: Oracle EPM Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Note:
Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to
align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before
sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.
Solution Overview Describe Rec Compliance and Transaction Matching
Explain Processes for Reconciliation Compliance (5 step process)
Describe Reconciliation Methods (Balance Comparison, Account Analysis, Variance
Analysis, Balance Comparison with Transaction Matching, Account Analysis with
Transaction Matching, and Transaction Matching Only)
Describe user roles (Administrator, Power User, User, Viewer)
Navigate the system (Filter, Sort, Select Columns, and Review a Reconciliation)
Configuring Reconciliation Compliance Create Formats
Modify Formats
Create Profiles (Manual entry, copy & paste, delete, export and import)
Modify Profiles (ex: change threshold)
Import and Export Teams
Managing Reconciliations
Describe Individual, Group, and Summary Reconciliations
Create and delete Reconciliations
Manage Period Status
Transfer reconciliations between users
Review, Approve, Reject, and Reopen reconciliations
Loading Data Describe methods of loading data
Load manual Pre-mapped data
Import Data Using Data Management
Set up EPM Automate to load Pre-mapped to DM or AR
Configure API call Pre-mapped to DM or AR
Creating and Managing Rules
Add calculated attributes and filters
Describe the Types of Rules
Add Rules to Formats and Profiles
Publish Filters
Configuring Transaction Matching
Create Match Types (Data Sources, Attributes, Transaction Types)
Configure Match Processes (including matching rules)
Create Formats and Profiles for Transaction Matching reconciliations
Export and Import Match Types
Import Transactions to Data Sources
Perform Transaction Matching Explain Transaction Matching Processes – Load data, run Auto Match, Confirm
Suggested Matches, Create Manual Matches
Identify Use Cases – Clearing or Accrual Reconciliations, Reconciling Debits and
Credits
Export adjustments or transactions as journal entries
Setting Up the System Discuss Profile Segments
Define Currency Rates and Currency Buckets
Set Up Organization Units
Set Up Calendars
Configure Periods
Set Up Teams
QUESTION 1 From which two dates defined in the period can you schedule reconciliations?
(Choose two.)
A. end date
B. prior period end date
C. close date
D. start date
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Which statement is always true of data loads from Data Management?
A. You must select either Actual or Budget as the scenario for the data.
B. You cannot load data into reconciliations with a status of Closed.
C. Only users with the administrator role can run data loads.
D. If there is no change in the balance, the reconciliation is not updated.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which keyword in a Teams import file identifies the section with the team
members?
A. #team_children
B. #team
C. #team_items
D. #dependents
For Slack admins at organizations of all sizes, you're in the right place to
learn and prove your skills.
Overview If you have experience with Slack’s admin capabilities and what it takes to
create an effective experience for your team, then becoming a Slack Certified
Admin will let you put your skills to the test and share your credentials.
By getting certified, you’ll be able to show the world that you have knowledge
of Slack’s features and how to use them to build a simpler, more pleasant and
more productive experience for your team. Once you pass this exam, you will
officially be a Slack Certified Admin for 18 months!
You'll be able to show off your credential to others in your organization or in
the wider community of people managing and driving organizational change with
Slack.
Qualifications To be a Slack Certified Admin, you must demonstrate the knowledge and skills
necessary to implement, configure and manage Slack. You should be comfortable
recommending policies, settings, features and thought leadership for use cases
on all paid Slack plans, including Standard, Plus and Enterprise Grid. We
recommend that you have at least six to twelve months of real-world experience
as a Slack admin as well as experience working in the admin console.
This program is designed to build skills and verify proficiency for Slack
admins. We recommend that you already have a moderate level of familiarity with: Admin roles
Slack architecture
User provisioning
Settings and policies
Channel structure
App approval processes
Data security
Process design
How to drive adoption for your team
For those with less experience, or for anyone who wants to build these skills in
preparation for the exam, we recommend you take the Slack Certified Admin Prep
Course. This course will help you gain the skills needed to pass the exam.
About the exam
Exam format: 60 Multiple choice questions
Time allotted: 90 Minutes
Passing score: 65%
Exam Registration fee: USD $150 (also available as a $300 package with the Slack
Certified Admin Prep Course)
Exam delivery method: Online proctored
Prerequisites: While there are no prerequisites, we recommend that you take the
Slack Certified Admin Prep Course to prepare for the exam.
Language: English
NOTE: To access the online prep course and the certification exam you will be
required to submit payment. The above cost covers the registration fee, access
to online training content for six months, access to the online prep course, the
certification exam, plus one additional exam attempt if you fail the first time,
and a digital credential once you successfully pass the exam.
QUESTION 1 Big Corp uses an IdP (Identity Provider) to manage access for its members to
its Plus plan on Slack. Their security team wants to make sure members will be
automatically deactivated when they leave the company.
Which of the following must be true to ensure that members are automatically
deactivated?
A. Each member’s access must be set to expire after 90 days.
B. The member must not be a Workspace Admin or Owner.
C. The member who is leaving the company must have left all channels.
D. The IdP must support deprovisioning via SCIM.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What would be the expected behavior if a team member in Enterprise Grid is
added to an IdP (Identity Provider) group with auto-provisioning enabled to a
workspace?
A. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace and would be
unable to leave.
B. The member would be notified that they have a new workspace that they can
join and would be unable to dismiss it until they have joined the workspace.
C. There will be no changes to the member’s workspace list.
D. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace unless it is a
hidden workspace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements describes the effect of configuring
mandatory Two Factor authentication (2FA) in Slack?
A. Members must have a sophisticated and complex password that is updated
regularly.
B. Members must use a biometric reader to authenticate with Slack.
C. Members use single sign-on (SSO) to handle the exchange of usernames and
passwords on behalf of Slack.
D. Members must submit a verification code along with their password each time
they sign in.
Exam overview Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on
the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers,
switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to
identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces;
understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found
software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect
and service products.
Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is
considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.
Exam preparation E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam
preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0
Practice Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)
Cisco Modeling labs
Exam Description: The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH
100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified
Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco
Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this
exam.
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the
skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches,
and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify
Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand
the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and
be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service
products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching
certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco
devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials
are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge
1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how
data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN
switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet,
Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH
20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware
2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus
7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst
6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and
Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000
Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800
Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not
limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not
limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and
switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)
29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation
3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register
parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE
26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge
4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet
mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on
Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or
USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a
Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex,
speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted
loopback)
QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?
A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What is the correct IPv6 address notation?
A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network
devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to
network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
Exam Details The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.1 Exam (2V0-31.20), which
leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation
2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled
method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 140 minutes, which includes
a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native
English speakers. Actual exam time is 135 minutes.
Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers,
world-wide. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for
certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services –
Certification website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has 6-12 months hands-on experience
installing and configuring vRealize Automation. The candidate is typically an
administrator who is capable of performing a standard deployment of and managing
vRealize Automation using Lifecycle Manager and troubleshooting a vRealize
Automation 8.1 solution. The candidate possesses an understanding of basic cloud
concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy, storage,
networking and security. The candidate has working knowledge of each of the
individual components, including Cloud Assembly Services, Service Broker, Code
Stream and vRealize Orchestrator. The candidate has working knowledge of
extensibility, identity and access management and basic knowledge of Kubernetes
clusters and zones.
Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections
below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending
on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
There are sections with no testable objectives in this version of the exam and
those are noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering will be referenced
in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation
should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 - Describe the Architecture of vRealize Automation
Objective 1.2 - Differentiate between vRealize Automation and vRealize
Automation Cloud
Objective 1.3 – Describe the Services Offered by vRealize Automation
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for
this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this
section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 - Describe the Different Types of vRealize Automation deployments
Objective 4.2 - Prepare the Pre-requisites for an Installation (DNS, NTP,
Service Accounts etc.)
Objective 4.3 - Perform a Standard Deployment using vRealize Easy Installer
Objective 4.4 - Configure vRealize Automation using Quickstart
Objective 4.5 - Perform Manual Installation using Lifecycle Manager
Objective 4.6 - Configure Identity Sources
Objective 4.7 - Configure Identity and Access Management
Objective 4.8 - Set up Cloud Accounts
Objective 4.9 - Add Cloud Zones
Objective 4.10 - Add Projects
Objective 4.11 - Add Image Mappings
Objective 4.12 - Add Flavor Mappings
Objective 4.13 - Add Network Profiles
Objective 4.14 - Add Storage Profiles
Objective 4.15 - Describe the Different Out of the Box Integrations Available
with vRealize Automation
Objective 4.16 - Integrate vRealize Automation with vRealize Operations
Objective 4.17 - Describe the Onboarding Process
Objective 4.18 - Describe Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)
Objective 4.19 – Describe the Different Types of Tags in vRealize Automation
Objective 4.20 - Configure Capability Tags
Objective 4.21 - Configure Multi-Tenancy
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades - There are no testable
objectives for this section
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Collect Log Bundles
Objective 6.2 - Describe vracli Command Options
Objective 6.3 - Describe kubectl Command Options
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot vRealize Automation Configuration Errors
Objective 6.5 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Objective 6.6 - Monitor Deployments
Objective 6.7 - Monitor vRealize Orchestrator Workflow Execution
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Manage the Identity and Access Management Tab
Objective 7.2 - Manage Cloud Accounts
Objective 7.3 - Manage Cloud Zones
Objective 7.4 - Manage Projects
Objective 7.5 - Manage Image Mappings
Objective 7.6 - Manage Flavor Mappings
Objective 7.7 - Manage Capability and Constraint Tags
Objective 7.8 - Manage Storage Profiles
Objective 7.9 - Manage Network Profiles
Objective 7.10 - Create and Manage Blueprints
Objective 7.11 - Create and Manage Blueprint Versions
Objective 7.12 - Manage Extensibility/Subscription
Objective 7.13 - Deploy Catalog Items
Objective 7.14 - Manage Deployments
Objective 7.15 - Describe Kubernetes Clusters
Objective 7.16 - Customize a Deployment using cloudConfig and cloud-init
Objective 7.17 - Create Service Broker Content Sources
Objective 7.18 - Configure Content Sharing
Objective 7.19 - Create and Manage Custom Forms
Objective 7.20 - Manage Policies
Objective 7.21 – Manage Notifications
QUESTION 1
When considering the architecture of a clustered deployment of VMware vRealize
Automation, which two components will require the configuration of an external
load balancer? (Choose two.)
A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
B. vRealize Automation
C. VMware Identity Manager
D. PostgreSQL Database
E. vCenter Server
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 An administrator is tasked with creating cloud zones for an existing Amazon
Web Services (AWS) cloud account.
Which type of compute resource can be added to the cloud zone?
A. Cluster
B. Elastic Cloud Compute (EC2) Instances
C. Availability Zones
D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An administrator configures cloud accounts for vSphere, Amazon Web Services
and Google Cloud Platform.
Each public cloud account has a single region configured, with a single cloud
zone associated with each.
Company policy states that all development workloads should be deployed to the
public cloud. The
administrator wants to ensure that when creating blueprints for this project an
appropriate constraint tag is
specified to meet the placement policy and that App-Dev users are allowed to
select whether to deploy the
machine to production or development. The tagging strategy states that
development environments should be
tagged with “dev” and production environments should be tagged “prod”.
Which two actions should the administrator take to ensure the objective is met?
(Choose two.)
A. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:prod as the
key/value pair.
B. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:prod as the
key/value pair.
C. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:dev as the
key/value pair.
D. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:dev as the
key/value pair.
E. Add a capability tag to each cloud account, using env:prod as the key/value
pair.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 What are two purposes of projects in vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)
A. Add cloud accounts
B. Map compute resources to users and groups
C. Organize image mappings
D. Create tenants
E. Configure custom naming
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which vRealize Suite product helps an administrator understand the monetary
impact of individual deployments and manage costs in vRealize Automation?
A. vRealize Log Insight
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Network Insight
D. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
Description The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to
implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security
devices.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 5 Certification
We recommend this course for network and security professionals who require the
expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices.
Program Requirements You must successfully pass a minimum of any two Fortinet NSE 5 certification
exams:
To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the
corresponding NSE 5 product courses. The courses are optional.
About the NSE 5 Exams
These exams are available at Pearson VUE test center.
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiClient 6.0
Exam series: NSE5_FCT-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiClient 6.0
Status: Registration ends August 31, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSIEM 5.1 Exam series: NSE5_FSM-5.1
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiSIEM 5.1
Status: Registration ends September 30, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 6.2
Exam series: NSE5_FMG-6.2
Number of questions: 35
Time allowed to complete: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 6.2
Status: Available
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2 Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.2
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiAnalyzer 6.2
Status: Available
QUESTION 1
Which two of the following must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to email a
FortiAnalyzer report externally?
(Choose two.)
A. Mail server
B. Output profile
C. SFTP server
D. Report scheduling
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 For which two purposes would you use the command set log checksum? (Choose
two.)
A. To help protect against man-in-the-middle attacks during log upload from
FortiAnalyzer to an SFTP server
B. To prevent log modification or tampering
C. To encrypt log communications
D. To send an identical set of logs to a second logging server
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one
of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed.
What is the recommended method to replace the disk?
A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk
B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level
C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still
running
D. Perform a hot swap
BCBA The purpose of the Board Certified Behavior Analyst® (BCBA®) examination is
to assess knowledge of the BCBA/BCaBA Task List (4th ed.) at a level consistent
with that of an entry-level behavior analyst. Before taking the BCBA
examination, you must apply to the BACB and provide the requested documentation
showing that you have met all eligibility requirements.
The BCBA examination is comprised of 160 multiple-choice questions, 10 of which
are ungraded pilot questions. Each question has four possible answers. You have
four hours to complete the examination.
Complete applications* are accepted on a continual basis. When your application
for initial certification is approved, you will receive an "authorization to
test" email, which will include scheduling instructions. Once you receive that
email, you may schedule your certification examination online with Pearson Vue
and select a date, time, and location that works for you.
*A completed application includes: Full payment received
Online application submitted and complete
All supporting documents (e.g., university transcript, Experience Verification
Forms) and any additional documentation (e.g., degree equivalency evaluation
documentation, coursework evaluation documentation, degree evaluation
documentation) received.
Content Development The BCBA examination reflects the best practices in behavior analysis.
Industry experts develop the examination, which is based on the results of a
formal Job Task Analysis. The BACB follows nationally accepted standards for
test development that include the use of subject matter experts and extensive
surveys.
QUESTION 1 A behavior analyst is adhering to which underlying assumption of behavior
analysis when she conducts several tests of her treatment before she writes it
in a formal behavior program?
A. Determinism
B. Law of parsimony
C. Empiricism
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Providing a complete description of one’s procedures in a behavior analytic
study of classroom management techniques is adhering to which dimensions of
behavior analysis?
A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Describing behavior program procedures in terms of the basic principles of
behavior is adhering to which dimension of behavior analysis?
A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When asked why a certain behavior happened, the behavior analyst states that
the behavior “came out of nowhere.” If the behavior analyst meant what he said,
he is violating the assumption of
__________________.
A. Philosophical doubt
B. Determinism
C. Technological
D. Being conceptually systematic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is NOT a dimension of applied behavior analysis?
A. Effective
B. Technological
C. Applied
D. Empirical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A behavior analyst is measuring the time it takes for a client to say,
“You’re welcome” after the staff says,
“Thank you.” The behavior analyst is measuring __________________.
A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Inter-response time
D. Latency
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which measure would probably be the best measure for crying?
Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top
of Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Azure data services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Microsoft Azure data
services and Microsoft SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a
variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including
applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security, and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the
quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance
of beta exams.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator
Associate
Skills measured
Plan and implement data platform resources (15-20%)
Implement a secure environment (15-20%)
Monitor and optimize operational resources (15-20%)
Optimize query performance (5-10%)
Perform automation of tasks (10-15%)
Plan and implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment
(15-20%)
Perform administration by using T-SQL (10-15%)
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built
on top of SQL Server and Azure Data Services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Azure Data Services
and SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and
tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using
T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive
or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Plan and Implement Data Platform Resources (15-20%) Deploy resources by using manual methods
• deploy database offerings on selected platforms
• configure customized deployment templates
• apply patches and updates for hybrid and IaaS deployment
Recommend an appropriate database offering based on specific requirements • evaluate requirements for the deployment
• evaluate the functional benefits/impact of possible database offerings
• evaluate the scalability of the possible database offering
• evaluate the HA/DR of the possible database offering
• evaluate the security aspects of the possible database offering
Configure resources for scale and performance • configure Azure SQL database/elastic pools for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL managed instances for scale and performance
• configure SQL Server in Azure VMs for scale and performance
• calculate resource requirements
• evaluate database partitioning techniques, such as database sharding
Evaluate a strategy for moving to Azure • evaluate requirements for the migration
• evaluate offline or online migration strategies
• evaluate requirements for the upgrade
• evaluate offline or online upgrade strategies
Implement a migration or upgrade strategy for moving to Azure
• implement an online migration strategy
• implement an offline migration strategy
• implement an online upgrade strategy
• implement an offline upgrade strategy
Implement a Secure Environment (15-20%)
Configure database authentication by using platform and database tools
• configure Azure AD authentication
• create users from Azure AD identities
• configure security principals
Configure database authorization by using platform and database tools
• configure database and object-level permissions using graphical tools
• apply principle of least privilege for all securables
Implement security for data at rest • implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
• implement object-level encryption
• implement Dynamic Data Masking
• implement Azure Key Vault and disk encryption for Azure VMs
Implement security for data in transit • configure SQL DB and database-level firewall rules
• implement Always Encrypted
• configure Azure Data Gateway
Implement compliance controls for sensitive data • apply a data classification strategy
• configure server and database audits
• implement data change tracking
• perform vulnerability assessment
Monitor and Optimize Operational Resources (15-20%)
Monitor activity and performance
• prepare an operational performance baseline
• determine sources for performance metrics
• interpret performance metrics
• assess database performance by using Azure SQL Database Intelligent
Performance
• configure and monitor activity and performance at the infrastructure, server,
service, and
database levels
Implement performance-related maintenance tasks • implement index maintenance tasks
• implement statistics maintenance tasks
• configure database auto-tuning
• automate database maintenance tasks
o Azure SQL agent jobs, Azure automation, SQL server agent jobs
• manage storage capacity
Identify performance-related issues • configure Query Store to collect performance data
• identify sessions that cause blocking
• assess growth/fragmentation of databases and logs
• assess performance-related database configuration parameters
o including AutoClose, AutoShrink, AutoGrowth
Configure resources for optimal performance • configure storage and infrastructure resources
o optimize IOPS, throughput, and latency
o optimize tempdb performance
o optimize data and log files for performance
• configure server and service account settings for performance
• configure Resource Governor for performance
Configure a user database for optimal performance
• implement database-scoped configuration
• configure compute resources for scaling
• configure Intelligent Query Processing (IQP)
Optimize Query Performance (5-10%)
Review query plans
• determine the appropriate type of execution plan
o live Query Statistics, Actual Execution Plan, Estimated Execution Plan,
Showplan
• identify problem areas in execution plans
• extract query plans from the Query Store
Evaluate performance improvements
• determine the appropriate Dynamic Management Views (DMVs) to gather query
performance information
• identify performance issues using DMVs
• identify and implement index changes for queries
• recommend query construct modifications based on resource usage
• assess the use of hints for query performance
Review database table and index design
• identify data quality issues with duplication of data
• identify normal form of database
• assess index design for performance
• validate data types defined for columns
• recommend table and index storage including filegroups
• evaluate table partitioning strategy
• evaluate the use of compression for tables and indexes
Perform Automation of Tasks (10-15%)
Create scheduled tasks
• manage schedules for regular maintenance jobs
• configure multi-server automation
• configure notifications for task success/failure/non-completion
Evaluate and implement an alert and notification strategy
• create event notifications based on metrics
• create event notifications for Azure resources
• create alerts for server configuration changes
• create tasks that respond to event notifications
Manage and automate tasks in Azure
• perform automated deployment methods for resources
• automate Backups
• automate performance tuning and patching
• implement policies by using automated evaluation modes
Plan and Implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
Environment (15-20%)
Recommend an HADR strategy for a data platform solution
• recommend HADR strategy based on RPO/RTO requirements
• evaluate HADR for hybrid deployments
• evaluate Azure-specific HADR solutions
• identify resources for HADR solutions
Test an HADR strategy by using platform, OS and database tools
• test HA by using failover
• test DR by using failover or restore
Perform backup and restore a database by using database tools
• perform a database backup with options
• perform a database restore with options
• perform a database restore to a point in time
• configure long-term backup retention
Configure DR by using platform and database tools
• configure replication
• configure Azure Site Recovery for a database offering
Configure HA using platform, OS and database tools
• create an Availability Group
• integrate a database into an Availability Group
• configure quorum options for a Windows Server Failover Cluster
• configure an Availability Group listener
Perform Administration by Using T-SQL (10-15%)
Examine system health
• evaluate database health using DMVs
• evaluate server health using DMVs
• perform database consistency checks by using DBCC
Monitor database configuration by using T-SQL
• assess proper database autogrowth configuration
• report on database free space
• review database configuration options
Perform backup and restore a database by using T-SQL
• prepare databases for AlwaysOn Availability Groups
• perform transaction log backup
• perform restore of user databases
• perform database backups with options
• configure permissions for users to access database objects
• configure permissions by using custom roles
QUESTION 1 You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter.
The instance contains a 4-TB database named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?
A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have 20 Azure SQL databases provisioned by using the vCore purchasing
model.
You plan to create an Azure SQL Database elastic pool and add the 20 databases.
Which three metrics should you use to size the elastic pool to meet the demands
of your workload? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. total size of all the databases
B. geo-replication support
C. number of concurrently peaking databases * peak CPU utilization per database
D. maximum number of concurrent sessions for all the databases
E. total number of databases * average CPU utilization per database
Correct Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION 3 You have a new Azure SQL database. The database contains a column that
stores confidential information.
You need to track each time values from the column are returned in a query. The
tracking information must be
stored for 365 days from the date the query was executed.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on auditing and write audit logs to an Azure Storage account.
B. Add extended properties to the column.
C. Turn on Advanced Data Security for the Azure SQL server.
D. Apply sensitivity labels named Highly Confidential to the column.
E. Turn on Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
Professional Collaboration Engineer A Professional Collaboration Engineer transforms business objectives into
tangible configurations, policies, and security practices as they relate to
users, content, and integrations. Collaboration Engineers leverage their
understanding of their organization’s mail routing and identity management
infrastructure to enable efficient and secure communication and data access.
Operating with an engineering and solutions mindset, they use tools, programming
languages, and APIs to automate workflows. They look for opportunities to
educate end users and increase operational efficiency while advocating for G
Suite and the Google toolset.
The Professional Collaboration Engineer exam assesses your ability to:
Plan and implement G Suite authorization and access
Manage user, resource, and Team Drive lifecycles
Manage mail
Control and configure G Suite services
Configure and manage endpoint access
Monitor organizational operations
Advance G Suite adoption and collaboration
Related job roles: IT systems administrator, cloud solutions engineer,
enterprise collaboration engineer, systems engineer About this certification exam
Length: 2 hours
Registration fee: $200 (plus tax where applicable)
Languages: English, Japanese
Exam format: Multiple choice and multiple select, taken in person at a test
center. Locate a test center near you.
Prerequisites: None
Recommended experience: 3+ years of industry experience including 1+ year G
Suite administration experience.
1. Review the exam guide The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on
the exam. Review the exam guide to determine if your skills align with the
topics on the exam.
2. Training
G Suite logo
G Suite Administration Specialization
Register
Professional Collaboration Engineer Practice Exam
Check your readiness for the Collaboration Engineer exam
Learn more
3. Hands-on practice This exam is designed to test technical skills related to the job role. In
addition to being familiar with the day-to-day tasks carried out by the G Suite
administrator, use the hands-on labs available on Qwiklabs to learn about G
Suite integrations to level up your knowledge and skills.
4. Additional resources In-depth discussions on the concepts and critical components of G Suite:
5. Assess your knowledge Familiarize yourself with the types of questions that will be on the exam.
Check your readiness to take this exam.
6. Schedule your exam Register and find a location near you.
QUESTION 1 Madeupcorp.com is in the process of migrating from a third-party email
system to G Suite. The VP of
Marketing is concerned that her team already administers the corporate AdSense,
AdWords, and YouTube
channels using their @madeupcorp.com email addresses, but has not tracked which
users have access to
which service. You need to ensure that there is no disruption.
What should you do?
A. Run the Transfer Tool for Unmanaged users.
B. Use a Google Form to survey the Marketing department users.
C. Assure the VP that there is no action required to configure G Suite.
D. Contact Google Enterprise Support to identify affected users.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Your company has an OU that contains your sales team and an OU that contains
your market research team.
The sales team is often a target of mass email from legitimate senders, which is
distracting to their job duties.
The market research team also receives that email content, but they want it
because it often contains
interesting market analysis or competitive intelligence. Constant Contact is
often used as the source of these
messages. Your company also uses Constant Contact for your own mass email
marketing. You need to set
email controls at the Sales OU without affecting your own outgoing email or the
market research OU.
What should you do?
A. Create a blocked senders list as the Sales OU that contains the mass email
sender addresses, but bypass this setting for Constant Contact emails.
B. Create a blocked senders list at the root level, and then an approved senders
list at the Market Research OU, both containing the mass email sender addresses.
C. Create a blocked senders list at the Sales OU that contains the mass email
sender addresses.
D. Create an approved senders list at the Market Research OU that contains the
mass email sender addresses.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Your organization is part of a highly regulated industry with a very high
turnover. In order to recycle licenses
for new employees and comply with data retention regulations, it has been
determined that certain G Suite
data should be stored in a separate backup environment.
How should you store data for this situation?
A. Use routing rules to dual-deliver mail to an on-premises SMTP server and G
Suite.
B. Write a script and use G Suite APIs to access and download user data.
C. Use a third-party tool to configure secure backup of G Suite data.
D. Train users to use Google Takeout and store their archives locally.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Your organization is on G Suite Enterprise and allows for external sharing
of Google Drive files to facilitate
collaboration with other G Suite customers. Recently you have had several
incidents of files and folders being
broadly shared with external users and groups. Your chief security officer needs
data on the scope of external
sharing and ongoing alerting so that external access does not have to be
disabled.
What two actions should you take to support the chief security officer's
request? (Choose two.)
A. Review who has viewed files using the Google Drive Activity Dashboard.
B. Create an alert from Drive Audit reports to notify of external file sharing.
C. Review total external sharing in the Aggregate Reports section.
D. Create a custom Dashboard for external sharing in the Security Investigation
Tool.
E. Automatically block external sharing using DLP rules.
Exam Number: 1Z0-961
Exam Title: Oracle Financials Cloud: Payables 2017 Implementation Essentials
Associated Certification Paths : Oracle Financials Cloud: Payables 2017
Certified Implementation Specialist
Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 73
Passing Score: 61%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against R13. (Previous
version of this exam was validated against R12 in 2017)
Format: Multiple Choice
Complete Recommended Training Complete the training below to prepare for your exam (optional):
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Our certification exams are revised regularly to align with training and product
release updates. Information about exam revisions and new topics are found on
this page under 'Validated Statement' and within the exam topics below.
Certifications reflect validated skills for year and product release version
date of achievement. If you are preparing for this exam, we recommend you check
these topics periodically to ensure your exam prep covers any new topics that
may be added based on regular exam revision.
Invoicing Explain the Integrated Imaging Solution
Create invoices
Approve Invoices
Manage supplier information
Payments Create a payment
Execute a Payment Process Request
Void a payment
Explain Bank Reconciliations
Customize Payment Formats
Set up payments for disbursement
Explain payment security
Explain payment approvals
Expenses Explain expense reporting
Approve expense reports
Process expense reimbursements
Manage Corporate Cards
Audit Expense Reports
Set up Expenses
Reporting Explain how to design and use various reporting tools
Explain Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI)
Use Business Intelligence Publisher (BIP) Reports
Use the Payables to Ledger Reconciliation Report
Process intercompany reconciliations
Other Payables Topics Process Income Tax and Withholding tax calculations
Explain the Close process
Configure Payables Setups
Configure Business Units
Demonstrate payables accounting concepts
Execute 1099 Reporting
Describe the Functional Setup Manager
QUESTION 1
What validation step is required for implementing dispute processing?
A. The Recognize Revenue Program is scheduled.
B. BPM Work List for approval configuration is validated.
C. Periods for which the transaction can be disputed are Open.
D. All transactions are of the invoice type.
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Your client performs many customer refunds and would like to search for
real-time Receivables Refunds Status easily.
What should you do to meet this requirement?
A. Create a Business Intelligence Publisher Report because you cannot create an
OTBI Report for refunds.
B. Create an Oracle Business Intelligence Applications (OBIA) Report.
C. Query each customer refund and verify the Refund Status.
D. Create a Real Time Report by using Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence
(OTBI).
Answer: D
QUESTION 3 To determine the best approach to converting a client’s data, you must know
which setup is set-enabled and can be shared.
Identify three set-enabled setups in Receivables. (Choose three.)
A. Collectors
B. Standard Memo Lines
C. Revenue Types
D. Receivable Specialists
E. Revenue Contingencies
Answer: B,C,E
QUESTION 4 Which two are rules applicable to issue of refunds? (Choose two.)
A. You cannot refund more than either the original receipt amount or the
remaining unapplied amount.
B. You can refund receipts that were either remitted or cleared.
C. You can issue a credit card refund to a customer who has made a cash payment.
D. You can refund receipts that are factored.
Answer: A,B
QUESTION 5 You are the Billing Manager and you are responsible for reviewing
adjustments and approving them.
Which two tabs are available in the Adjustments Overview Region on the Billing
Work Area page? (Choose two.)
A. Pending My Research
B. Pending Approval From Managers
C. Pending Approval
D. Pending My Approval
E. Approved
Published: July 2, 2010
Languages: English
Audiences: Developers
Technology: Microsoft Visual Studio 2010
Credit toward certification: MCTS
Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the
exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on
that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of
question types on Microsoft exams.
Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the
topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam?
Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and
incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability
of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to
your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft
Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an
exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or
about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact
your Regional Service Center.
Building a user interface by using basic techniques (23%) Choose the most appropriate control class
Evaluating design requirements and then selecting the most appropriate control
based on those requirements; recognizing when none of the standard controls meet
requirements; item controls, menu controls, content controls
This objective does not include: designing a custom control
Implement screen layout by using nested control hierarchies
Using panel-derived controls, attaching properties
This objective does not include: items controls, control customization
Create and apply styles and theming
Application-level styles, overriding styles, style inheritance, Generic.xaml,
theming attributes
This objective does not include: data-grid view style sharing
Manage reusable resources
Fonts, styles, data sources, images, resource dictionaries, resource-only DLLs
Implement an animation in WPF
Creating a storyboard; controlling timelines; controlling the behavior when the
animation completes; double, color, and point animations; starting an animation
from code and from XAML
This objective does not include: direct rendering updates, implementing key
frame animations
Preparation resources
Styling and templating
Layout system
Animation tips and tricks
Enhancing a user interface by using advanced techniques (21%) Manage routed events in WPF
Tunneling vs. bubbling events, handling and cancelling events
This objective does not include: simple event handling; creating custom events
Configure WPF commanding
Defining WPF commands based on RoutedCommand; associating commands to controls;
handling commands; command bindings; input gestures
This objective does not include: creating custom commands by implementing
ICommand
Modify the visual interface at run time
Adding/removing controls at run time; manipulating the visual tree; control life
cycle; generating a template dynamically
This objective does not include: instantiating forms and simple modification of
control properties at runtime
Implement user-defined controls
Deciding whether to use a user/composite, extended, or custom control; creating
a user/composite control; extending from an existing control
This objective does not include: creating a custom control by inheriting
directly from the control class and writing code
Create and display graphics
Creating and displaying graphics by using geometric transformation; brushes;
drawing shapes; clipping; double buffering; overriding render (WPF) and OnPaint
(WinForms); differentiating between retained and non-retained graphics
This objective does not include: creating and displaying three-dimensional
graphics; hit testing; creating images
Add multimedia content to an application in WPF
Media player vs. media element; adding a sound player; images
This objective does not include: buffering
Create and apply control templates in WPF
Template binding
This objective does not include: styling and theming; data templating
Create data, event, and property triggers in WPF
Preparation resources
Input and commands how-to topics
Control styles and templates
Managing data at the user interface layer (23%)
Implement data binding
Binding options, static and dynamic resources, element bindings, setting the
correct binding mode and update mode; binding to nullable values
This objective does not include: binding to a specific data source
Implement value converters in WPF
Implementing custom value converters, implementing multivalue converters
Implement data validation
Handling validation and providing user feedback via the error provider (WinForms)
or data templates (WPF), IDataErrorInfo, validation control, form validation and
control validation
Implement and consume change notification interfaces
Implementing INotifyPropertyChanged; using INotifyCollectionChanged (ObservableCollection)
Prepare collections of data for display
Filtering, sorting, and grouping data; LINQ; CollectionView (WPF), BindingSource
object (WinForms)
Bind to hierarchical data
TreeView; MenuControl
Implement data-bound controls
Using the DataGridView (WinForms) or DataGrid (WPF) control to display and
update the data contained in a data source, implementing complex data binding to
integrate data from multiple sources; ItemsControl-derived controls (WPF)
Create a data template in WPF
Implementing a data template selector; using templates with ItemsControl
Preparation resources Data binding (WPF)
DataGrid
Enhancing the functionality and usability of a solution (17%)
Integrate WinForms and WPF within an application
Using ElementHosts within WinForms and ControlHosts within WPF; using the
PropertyMap property
Implement asynchronous processes and threading
Implementing asynchronous programming patterns; marshalling between threads;
freezing UI elements; using timers; task parallel library; parallel LINQ; using
the dispatcher; BackgroundWorker component
Incorporate globalization and localization features
Loading resources by locale; marking localizable elements; using culture
settings in validators and converters; using language properties and rendering
direction properties; working with resource files for localization; determining
installed locales; regional settings
Implement drag and drop operations within and across applications
This objective does not include: Dynamic Data Exchange (DDE)
Implement security features of an application
Configuring Software Restriction Policy (SRP); full trust and partially trusted
security; interoperability with legacy CAS policy; User Account Control (UAC)
Manage user and application settings
Creating application settings; creating user settings; loading and saving
settings
This objective does not include: persisting to database
Implement dependency properties
Enabling data binding and animation, property metadata, property change
callbacks
Preparation resources
WPF and Windows Forms interoperation
How to: Perform drag-and-drop operations between applications
Dependency properties overview
Stabilizing and releasing a solution (16%)
Implement a WPF test strategy
Automation peer, UI automation, IntelliTrace
Debug XAML by using the WPF visualizer
Accessing the visualizer, drilling down into the visual tree, viewing and
changing properties
This objective does not include: setting a breakpoint and stepping through code
Debug WPF issues by using PresentationTraceSources
Animation, data binding, dependency properties
Configure a ClickOnce deployment
Configuring the installation of a WinForms, WPF, or XBAP application by using
ClickOnce technology; choosing appropriate settings to manage upgrades
Create and configure a Windows installer project
Configuring a setup project to add icons during setup, setting deployment
project properties, configuring conditional installation based on operating
system versions, setting appropriate launch conditions based on the .NET
framework version, adding custom actions to a setup project, adding
error-handling code to a setup project
Configure deployment security settings
Configuring and integrating UAC by using ClickOnce deployments; setting
appropriate security permissions to deploy the application
Preparation resources
Debugging WPF – WPF Tree Visualizer and helper class
PresentationTraceSources class
How to: Use ClickOnce to deploy applications that can run on multiple versions
of the .NET Framework QUESTION 1
You use Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Forms application.
You add a new class named Customer to the application. You select the Customer class to create a new object data source.
You add the following components to a Windows Form:
? A BindingSource component named customerBindingSource that is data-bound to the Customer object data source.
? A set of TextBox controls to display and edit the Customer object properties. Each TextBox control is data-bound to a property of the customerBindingSource component.
? An ErrorProvider component named errorProvider that validates the input values for each TextBox control.
You need to ensure that the input data for each TextBox control is automatically validated by using the ErrorProvider component.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Implement the validation rules inside the Validating event handler of each TextBox control by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
B. Implement the validation rules inside the TextChanged event handler of each TextBox control by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
C. Implement the validation rules inside the setter of each property of the Customer class by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
D. Add the following code segment to the InitializeComponent method of the Windows Form.
this.errorProvider.DataSource = this.customerBindingSource;
E. Add the following code segment to the InitializeComponent method of the Windows Form.
this.errorProvider.DataSource = this.customerBindingSource.DataSource; this. errorProvider. DataMember = this. customerBindingSource. DataMember;
Answer: C,D
QUESTION 2
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
The application contains a ListBox control named IbxItems that is data-bound to a collection of objects. Each object has a DisplayValue property.
You add a Button control to the application.
You need to ensure that the Content property of the Button control is data-bound to the DisplayValue property of the selected item of IbxItems.
Which binding expression should you use?
A. {Binding ElementName= IbxItems, Source=SelectedItem, Path=DisplayValue}
B. {Binding Source=lbxItems, ElementName=SelectedItem, Path=DisplayValue}
C. {Binding ElementName=lbxItems, Path=SelectedItem.DisplayValue}
D. {Binding Source=lbxItems, Path=SelectedItem.DisplayValue}
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
You write the following code fragment.
< TextBox Text="{Binding Path=StringMember} " / >
You need to ensure that the StringMember property of the data-bound object is updated immediately when the user types in the TextBox control.
Which binding expression should you use?
A. { Binding Path=StringMember, Mode=TwoWay }
B. { Binding Path=StringMember, NotifyOnSourceUpdated=True }
C. { Binding Path-StringMember, NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True }
D. { Binding Path=StringMember, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }
Answer: D
QUESTION 4
You use Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
You add a ListBox control to the application. The ListBox control is data-bound to an instance of a custom collection class of the Product objects named ProductList.
The number of items of the data-bound collection is fixed. However, users can modify the properties of each of the Product objects in the collection.
You need to ensure that changes made on the Product objects are automatically reflected in the ListBox control.
What should you do?
A. Implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in the Product class.
B. Implement the INotifyCollectionChanged interface in the ProductList class.
C. Set the Mode property of the Binding object of the ListBox control to TwoWay.
D. Set the UpdateSourceTrigger property of the Binding object of the ListBox control to PropertyChanged.
Published: June 8, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese
(Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Visual Studio 2015
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSD
Skills measured This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed
below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on
the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on
that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of
question types on Microsoft exams.
Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the
topics described in the bulleted text.
Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam?
Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and
incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability
of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to
your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft
Certification program.
If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an
exam challenge.
If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or
about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact
your Regional Service Center.
Define an effective end-to-end Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) (15-20%)
Understand the value of an end-to-end view of Application Lifecycle Management (ALM)
tools and practices
Understand that an observable problem may be indicative of a more general
process issue; explain the difference between optimizing a piece of the ALM
process, such as manual testing, and optimizing the entire ALM process
Explain the benefits of fast feedback
Explain the importance of fast feedback related to communicating requirements,
explain the benefits of end customer feedback to early software iterations
Implement strategies to reduce end-to-end cycle time
Identify bottlenecks in the delivery process, identify metrics that highlight
bottlenecks, create potential solutions whose effectiveness can be validated,
understand the relationship between work in process (WIP) and cycle time
Implement strategies to improve software quality
Identify process steps that introduce defects, understand the end-to-end quality
process, bring quality efforts early in the development cycle
Implement strategies to reduce waste
Identify wasteful activities, create strategies to eliminate waste, measure the
effectiveness of waste removal activities
Create a process improvement plan
Create strategies for implementing organizational change, identify key metrics
to be tracked during the improvement effort, create consensus for the change
Preparation resources
Agile software development with Microsoft Visual Studio ALM
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (02) Define an effective end-to-end
software development lifecycle
Adopting Visual Studio and Team Foundation Server for Application Lifecycle
Management
Define the ALM process (15-20%) Role of different ALM processes
Understand the cost and benefits of the key ALM processes, including agile,
scrum, waterfall, and Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)
Implement a scrum/agile process
Establish self-organizing teams; holding a scrum/agile planning meeting, hold
daily scrums/stand-up meetings, hold retrospective meetings, hold scrum review
meetings
Define a scrum/agile process for a team
Establish criteria on when to cancel a sprint/iteration, establish tooling and
process for scrum/agile artifacts, establish the scrum definition of "done,"
determine sprint/iteration length, determine how to handle backlog items/user
stories not completed in a sprint/iteration, determine how to monitor
sprint/iteration progress, use collaborative tools
Implement Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) for CMMI process improvement
Establish project drivers (scope-driven, date-driven), assign product
requirements to iterations, manage changes, manage issues
Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (03) Define the ALM process
MSF for Agile Software Development v5.0
Define a software iteration (15-20%) Plan a release
Identify a flexibility matrix, identify releases based on priority items in
flexibility matrix and release criteria, resource planning (scrum team is
responsible for allocating team members), identify techniques to optimize a team
that is geographically distributed, select a project methodology, risk
management
Define a project-tracking process
Plan and manage a portfolio of multiple projects, identify a project tracking
tool and an associated process (triage process, bug management), define how to
manage effort, determine team forecast management, define a prioritization
scheme, determine how to validate project health
Scope a project
Scope the effort for a release, define an architecture design process, define
scope boundaries (is/is not list), determine the definition of “done,” define a
process when effort estimates are significantly inaccurate
Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (04) Define a software iteration
Planning an iteration (CMMI)
Reports (SQL Server Reporting Services)
Define end value for the software iteration (15-20%) Elicit requirements
Define project requirements, review and clarify requirements, define acceptance
criteria, define UI platform requirements (web, mobile), assign a business value
Estimate requirements
Manage and assign effort estimates (assign story points); resize user
requirements into smaller, manageable pieces; execute task breakdown; estimate
the requirements baseline
Document requirements
Define acceptance criteria, list requirements, add requirement details, design
UI storyboards
Prioritize requirements
Identify requirements that are critical path, identify must-have requirements,
enable the entire team (including customers) to participate in requirements
prioritization, identify dependencies
Preparation resources
Managing requirements and user expectations in agile projects
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (05) Define end value for the software
iteration
Develop requirements
Develop customer value with high quality (15-20%) Define code quality indicators
Perform code review, including security and performance analysis; analyze code
for common defects; calculate code coverage; perform architecture validation
Incorporate unit testing
Establish unit test standards, develop a strategy for adding unit tests to
existing applications, select the unit test type, establish the code coverage
target, use shims and stubs to isolate your application
Develop code
Develop maintainable code; define coding standards; define application
architecture; define configuration management process and tooling, including
source control tree, branching strategy, solution structure, source
control/check-in policy; manage multiple repositories using Git; use
architecture, model, and design tools; use quality and diagnostic tools
Validate quality
Organize test artifacts, such as test cases, suites, plans, and requirements;
define test strategy; manage test execution; perform cloud-based load testing;
identify test types and associated tools; identify and configure environments;
analyze test runs
Customize a team project
Customize a work item, customize work item queries, customize Team Portal,
identify areas and iterations, manage roles and associated permissions
Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (06) Develop customer value with high
quality
Verifying code by using unit tests
Customize team projects and processes
Integrate development and operations (15-20%) Implement an automated deployment process
Architect an automated build and deploy workflow, integrate automated tests,
automate deployment into both test and production environments, review
diagnostic logs for builds, manage releases including Release Management
Implement pre-production environments
Automate the creation of virtual test lab environments, automate deployment into
virtual test environments
Manage feedback between development and operations
Implement tools to simplify communication; identify, measure, and report key
analytics and performance indicators, such as cycle time and mean time to repair
(MTTR); create appropriate shared artifacts and process to facilitate
communication; standardize required artifacts for defect reports; create
strategies for test case reuse (both automated and manual) in production;
monitor an application in production to optimize usage and performance
Troubleshoot production issues
Gather defect data from bugs in a production setting, provide actionable data to
the development team, monitor applications running in production for potential
issues, manage incident response times collaboratively between development and
operations, use Application Insights appropriately
Preparation resources Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (07) Integrate development and
operations
Setting up test machines to run tests or collect data
DevOps: Integrating development and operations for the last mile velocity
QUESTION 1
You are utilizing the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template.
Your development team uses the storyboard feature in Visual Studio 2012.
You need to ensure that there is consistency of user interface between different features of the product.
What should you do?
A. Create a design guide document with images of sample standard layouts. Provide a copy of this document to all team members.
B. Create custom storyboard shapes by using Microsoft PowerPoint that match your corporate standard user interface (UI) controls. Export these and make them available to the team as an import for use in all storyboards.
C. Create custom storyboard shapes in PowerPoint that match your corporate standard UI controls. Save the results as a PowerPoint template in the SharePoint site associated with the Team project collection. Instruct team members to import the shapes.
D. Create images of your UI controls as GIF/JPEG files that match your corporate standard UI controls. Export these and make them available to the team as an import for use in all storyboards.
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You manage a software development project that includes multiple feature teams. The teams integrate their code into a shared code repository as frequently as possible.
You plan to configure a build definition by using the default build process template (DefaultTemplate.xaml).
You need to know when a check-in from a feature team has broken the build or caused a test to fail, without impacting the feature team.
What should you do?
A. Set the Analyze Test Impact parameter to True in the build process template.
B. Set the build trigger to Continuous Integration and enable automated testing.
C. Add the Builds check-in policy to your team project.
D. Create a shelveset command for pending changes. Queue a build using the latest source with the shelveset parameter.
Answer: B QUESTION 3
You are a scrum master.
You need to lead the daily scrum meeting.
Which three questions should you ask? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. What will be done before the next meeting?
B. What went well?
C. What has been accomplished since the last meeting?
D. Are there any potential improvements?
E. What obstacles are in the way?
F. Is the burndown up to date?
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION 4
You manage a project that has three teams working in parallel on a single codebase using a Scrum process methodology.
You need to ensure that each team can manage work separately while editing a shared code base.
What should you do?
A. Within a single team project, create separate iteration paths for each team. Assign each team member to their respective iteration path.
B. Create a team project for each team, assigning different team members to each team project.
C. Within a single team project, create three teams. Assign each team member to their respective teams.
D. Create a team project for each team, assigning all team members to each team project.
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Your development team is using the Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) for Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Process Improvement 6.0 process template.
The team has identified all of the acceptance criteria for a new application. This data currently resides in a series of spreadsheets.
You need to enter the criteria into TFS for team traceability and tracking.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create test case work items for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Link the test case work items with the work item(s) for the appropriate requirements.
B. Create Requirement work items.
C. Create a new task work item for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Set the Triage attribute for each task work item to Information Received.
D. Create a new quality of service test case work item for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Link the quality of service test case work items with the work item(s) for the appropriate requirements.
Microsoft has been pursuing a more collaborative approach under CEO Satya
Nadella, working with longtime rivals like Salesforce, VMware and Apple. There
hasn't been much love between Microsoft and Google, though, but an announcement
Wednesday may signal an easing of those tensions.
Google and Microsoft have reached a broad agreement on patent matters, with a
legal settlement ending some 20 lawsuits between the companies in the U.S. and
Germany. Financial terms weren't disclosed, but the deal brings a laundry list
of lawsuits to a close.
“Microsoft and Google are pleased to announce an agreement on patent issues,"
they said in a joint statement. "As part of the agreement, the companies will
dismiss all pending patent infringement litigation between them, including cases
related to Motorola Mobility."
They also agreed to collaborate on patent matters and work together "to benefit
our customers.”
The suits that have been settled include those related to mobile phones, video
encoding and wi-fi technologies. That doesn't mean Microsoft has given up its
campaign to collect royalties from Android device makers for the mobile
operating system's alleged infringement of Microsoft patents.
It's not clear from the statement what patent matters the companies will be
working on together in the future, but we've already begun to see shades of that
taking place. The two firms agreed earlier this month to work together
(alongside other firms like Netflix and Mozilla) on a royalty-free video codec.
It remains to be seen if the settlement will lead to more work between Microsoft
and Google in other areas. A major sticking point for consumers has been the
lack of a Google-made YouTube app for smartphones and tablets running Windows.
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