Exam Number: 1Z0-1087-20
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 85 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.36,887
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: Exam has been validated against Oracle Account Reconciliation 20.10
Policy: Cloud Recertification
Earn associated certifications Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional): In the subscription: Oracle EPM Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Note:
Cloud technology is ever-evolving. Oracle updates exam content regularly, to
align with product updates and certification standards. Check exam topics before
sitting for your exam to ensure that you are prepared for any updated content.
Solution Overview Describe Rec Compliance and Transaction Matching
Explain Processes for Reconciliation Compliance (5 step process)
Describe Reconciliation Methods (Balance Comparison, Account Analysis, Variance
Analysis, Balance Comparison with Transaction Matching, Account Analysis with
Transaction Matching, and Transaction Matching Only)
Describe user roles (Administrator, Power User, User, Viewer)
Navigate the system (Filter, Sort, Select Columns, and Review a Reconciliation)
Configuring Reconciliation Compliance Create Formats
Modify Formats
Create Profiles (Manual entry, copy & paste, delete, export and import)
Modify Profiles (ex: change threshold)
Import and Export Teams
Managing Reconciliations
Describe Individual, Group, and Summary Reconciliations
Create and delete Reconciliations
Manage Period Status
Transfer reconciliations between users
Review, Approve, Reject, and Reopen reconciliations
Loading Data Describe methods of loading data
Load manual Pre-mapped data
Import Data Using Data Management
Set up EPM Automate to load Pre-mapped to DM or AR
Configure API call Pre-mapped to DM or AR
Creating and Managing Rules
Add calculated attributes and filters
Describe the Types of Rules
Add Rules to Formats and Profiles
Publish Filters
Configuring Transaction Matching
Create Match Types (Data Sources, Attributes, Transaction Types)
Configure Match Processes (including matching rules)
Create Formats and Profiles for Transaction Matching reconciliations
Export and Import Match Types
Import Transactions to Data Sources
Perform Transaction Matching Explain Transaction Matching Processes – Load data, run Auto Match, Confirm
Suggested Matches, Create Manual Matches
Identify Use Cases – Clearing or Accrual Reconciliations, Reconciling Debits and
Credits
Export adjustments or transactions as journal entries
Setting Up the System Discuss Profile Segments
Define Currency Rates and Currency Buckets
Set Up Organization Units
Set Up Calendars
Configure Periods
Set Up Teams
QUESTION 1 From which two dates defined in the period can you schedule reconciliations?
(Choose two.)
A. end date
B. prior period end date
C. close date
D. start date
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2 Which statement is always true of data loads from Data Management?
A. You must select either Actual or Budget as the scenario for the data.
B. You cannot load data into reconciliations with a status of Closed.
C. Only users with the administrator role can run data loads.
D. If there is no change in the balance, the reconciliation is not updated.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which keyword in a Teams import file identifies the section with the team
members?
A. #team_children
B. #team
C. #team_items
D. #dependents
For Slack admins at organizations of all sizes, you're in the right place to
learn and prove your skills.
Overview If you have experience with Slack’s admin capabilities and what it takes to
create an effective experience for your team, then becoming a Slack Certified
Admin will let you put your skills to the test and share your credentials.
By getting certified, you’ll be able to show the world that you have knowledge
of Slack’s features and how to use them to build a simpler, more pleasant and
more productive experience for your team. Once you pass this exam, you will
officially be a Slack Certified Admin for 18 months!
You'll be able to show off your credential to others in your organization or in
the wider community of people managing and driving organizational change with
Slack.
Qualifications To be a Slack Certified Admin, you must demonstrate the knowledge and skills
necessary to implement, configure and manage Slack. You should be comfortable
recommending policies, settings, features and thought leadership for use cases
on all paid Slack plans, including Standard, Plus and Enterprise Grid. We
recommend that you have at least six to twelve months of real-world experience
as a Slack admin as well as experience working in the admin console.
This program is designed to build skills and verify proficiency for Slack
admins. We recommend that you already have a moderate level of familiarity with: Admin roles
Slack architecture
User provisioning
Settings and policies
Channel structure
App approval processes
Data security
Process design
How to drive adoption for your team
For those with less experience, or for anyone who wants to build these skills in
preparation for the exam, we recommend you take the Slack Certified Admin Prep
Course. This course will help you gain the skills needed to pass the exam.
About the exam
Exam format: 60 Multiple choice questions
Time allotted: 90 Minutes
Passing score: 65%
Exam Registration fee: USD $150 (also available as a $300 package with the Slack
Certified Admin Prep Course)
Exam delivery method: Online proctored
Prerequisites: While there are no prerequisites, we recommend that you take the
Slack Certified Admin Prep Course to prepare for the exam.
Language: English
NOTE: To access the online prep course and the certification exam you will be
required to submit payment. The above cost covers the registration fee, access
to online training content for six months, access to the online prep course, the
certification exam, plus one additional exam attempt if you fail the first time,
and a digital credential once you successfully pass the exam.
QUESTION 1 Big Corp uses an IdP (Identity Provider) to manage access for its members to
its Plus plan on Slack. Their security team wants to make sure members will be
automatically deactivated when they leave the company.
Which of the following must be true to ensure that members are automatically
deactivated?
A. Each member’s access must be set to expire after 90 days.
B. The member must not be a Workspace Admin or Owner.
C. The member who is leaving the company must have left all channels.
D. The IdP must support deprovisioning via SCIM.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What would be the expected behavior if a team member in Enterprise Grid is
added to an IdP (Identity Provider) group with auto-provisioning enabled to a
workspace?
A. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace and would be
unable to leave.
B. The member would be notified that they have a new workspace that they can
join and would be unable to dismiss it until they have joined the workspace.
C. There will be no changes to the member’s workspace list.
D. The member would be automatically added to the new workspace unless it is a
hidden workspace.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following statements describes the effect of configuring
mandatory Two Factor authentication (2FA) in Slack?
A. Members must have a sophisticated and complex password that is updated
regularly.
B. Members must use a biometric reader to authenticate with Slack.
C. Members use single sign-on (SSO) to handle the exchange of usernames and
passwords on behalf of Slack.
D. Members must submit a verification code along with their password each time
they sign in.
Exam overview Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on
the skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers,
switches, and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to
identify Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces;
understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found
software; and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect
and service products.
Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification is
considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco devices and systems.
Exam preparation E-learning
Cisco Learning Network Store offers online, self-paced courses and exam
preparation materials. For this exam, we recommend:
Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH) v3.0
Practice Practice your skills for this exam in these hands-on lab environments:
Cisco Virtual Internet Routing Lab Personal Edition (VIRL PE)
Cisco Modeling labs
Exam Description: The Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0 (RSTECH
100-490) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question exam associated with Cisco Certified
Technician Routing and Switching certification. The course, Supporting Cisco
Routing and Switching Network Devices v3.0, helps candidates prepare for this
exam.
Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the
skills required for onsite support and maintenance of Cisco routers, switches,
and operating environments. Technicians in this area must be able to identify
Cisco router and switch models, accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand
the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software; and
be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service
products. Achieving Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching
certification is considered the best foundation for supporting other Cisco
devices and systems. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials
are allowed.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
25% 1.0 General Networking Knowledge
1.1 Use the OSI and TCP/IP models and their associated protocols to explain how
data flows in a network
1.2 Describe the basic functionality and key differences of this hardware: LAN
switch, router, and wireless access points
1.3 Differentiate between these Layer 2 technologies: Ethernet, Fast Ethernet,
Gigabit Ethernet, Serial, and Optical
1.4 Describe LAN cabling
1.5 Describe the function of CSU/DSU
1.6 Describe Telco termination point
1.7 Describe an IPv4 and IPv6 address and subnet
1.8 Describe the function of FTP, TFTP and PING
1.9 Describe the function of Telnet and SSH
20% 2.0 Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware
2.1 Identify the Cisco equipment including the Cisco Nexus 9000 Series, Nexus
7000 Series, Nexus 3000 Series, MDS 9000 Series, Catalyst 9000 Series, Catalyst
6800 Series, Catalyst 6500 E-Series, Catalyst 3850, 3650, 2960, 1000 Series and
Meraki switches and Cisco 8000 Series, Cisco ASR 9000 Series, Cisco ASR 1000
Series, NCS 5500 Series ,NCS 5000 Series routers and Cisco 4000, 1100, 900, 800
Series Integrated Service routers.
2.2 Identify Cisco products by logo marking and model number (including, but not
limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.3 Identify Cisco Transceiver Modules
2.4 Identify and locate the serial number of Cisco products (including, but not
limited to, locations on chassis, line card, module, or adapter)
2.5 Identify and describe commonly used components
2.6 Describe hardware memory common terms and their use in Cisco routers and
switches
2.7 Identify the cabling on Cisco equipment
2.8 Identify tools for hardware installation and replacement
2.9 Identify the different loop-back plugs (RJ45 Ethernet, T1, 56K)
29% 3.0 Cisco IOS Software Operation
3.1 Describe the key role of Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, IOS-XR and NX-OS software
3.2 Navigate between different operating modes
3.3 Determine the current mode of a device
3.4 Copy and paste a configuration file from/to a router or switch
3.5 Use and interpret the basic Cisco IOS Software commands
3.6 Describe the location and process to change the configuration register
parameter
3.7 Identify a configuration file from a Cisco device
3.8 Describe the licensing process on different platforms
3.10 Describe Bundle Mode/Install Mode IOS-XE
26% 4.0 Service-Related Knowledge
4.1 Locate and use a text editor such as, Notepad
4.2 Locate and use the Windows command prompt
4.3 Locate, configure, and use Terminal Emulation (Tera Term, Putty)
4.4 Configure networks settings for Ethernet port on laptop (IP address, subnet
mask and default gateway) and establish a connection with Ethernet ports on
Cisco equipment using correct cable
4.5 Make a physical connection from laptop to Cisco console port
4.6 Connect, configure, and verify operation status of a device interface
4.7 Configure and use TFTP and FTP servers (TFTP d32/64, FIlezilla)
4.8 Perform software upgrade or downgrade using TFTP, FTP, xmodem, tftpdnld, or
USB Storage
4.9 Manage configurations via the TCP/IP network
4.10 Perform password recovery on a Cisco device
4.11 Identify and correct common network problems at Layers 1 and 2 4.11.a
Serial or ether interface status 4.11.b Ethernet layer 2 (full and half duplex,
speed issues) 4.11.c WAN serial loopback test (T1, 56K and Telco assisted
loopback)
QUESTION 1
Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?
A. RSVP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. UDP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What is the correct IPv6 address notation?
A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about Telnet and SSH are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSH is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to network
devices.
B. SSH uses the well-known TCP port 23 for its communication.
C. A Telnet network management connection is dropped when a router reboots.
D. Telnet is a protocol that provides a secure remote access connection to
network devices.
E. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
Exam Details The Professional VMware vRealize Automation 8.1 Exam (2V0-31.20), which
leads to the VMware Certified Professional – Cloud Management and Automation
2020 certification, is a 70-item exam with a passing score of 300 using a scaled
method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 140 minutes, which includes
a five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native
English speakers. Actual exam time is 135 minutes.
Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers,
world-wide. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for
certification attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services –
Certification website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified candidate (MQC) has 6-12 months hands-on experience
installing and configuring vRealize Automation. The candidate is typically an
administrator who is capable of performing a standard deployment of and managing
vRealize Automation using Lifecycle Manager and troubleshooting a vRealize
Automation 8.1 solution. The candidate possesses an understanding of basic cloud
concepts including public/private/hybrid clouds, multitenancy, storage,
networking and security. The candidate has working knowledge of each of the
individual components, including Cloud Assembly Services, Service Broker, Code
Stream and vRealize Orchestrator. The candidate has working knowledge of
extensibility, identity and access management and basic knowledge of Kubernetes
clusters and zones.
Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections
below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending
on the exam objectives.
Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
There are sections with no testable objectives in this version of the exam and
those are noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering will be referenced
in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation
should a retake of the exam be necessary.
Section 1 – Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 - Describe the Architecture of vRealize Automation
Objective 1.2 - Differentiate between vRealize Automation and vRealize
Automation Cloud
Objective 1.3 – Describe the Services Offered by vRealize Automation
Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions - There are no testable objectives for
this section
Section 3- Planning and Designing - There are no testable objectives for this
section
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Objective 4.1 - Describe the Different Types of vRealize Automation deployments
Objective 4.2 - Prepare the Pre-requisites for an Installation (DNS, NTP,
Service Accounts etc.)
Objective 4.3 - Perform a Standard Deployment using vRealize Easy Installer
Objective 4.4 - Configure vRealize Automation using Quickstart
Objective 4.5 - Perform Manual Installation using Lifecycle Manager
Objective 4.6 - Configure Identity Sources
Objective 4.7 - Configure Identity and Access Management
Objective 4.8 - Set up Cloud Accounts
Objective 4.9 - Add Cloud Zones
Objective 4.10 - Add Projects
Objective 4.11 - Add Image Mappings
Objective 4.12 - Add Flavor Mappings
Objective 4.13 - Add Network Profiles
Objective 4.14 - Add Storage Profiles
Objective 4.15 - Describe the Different Out of the Box Integrations Available
with vRealize Automation
Objective 4.16 - Integrate vRealize Automation with vRealize Operations
Objective 4.17 - Describe the Onboarding Process
Objective 4.18 - Describe Action-Based Extensibility (ABX)
Objective 4.19 – Describe the Different Types of Tags in vRealize Automation
Objective 4.20 - Configure Capability Tags
Objective 4.21 - Configure Multi-Tenancy
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, Upgrades - There are no testable
objectives for this section
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Collect Log Bundles
Objective 6.2 - Describe vracli Command Options
Objective 6.3 - Describe kubectl Command Options
Objective 6.4 - Troubleshoot vRealize Automation Configuration Errors
Objective 6.5 - Troubleshoot Provisioning Errors
Objective 6.6 - Monitor Deployments
Objective 6.7 - Monitor vRealize Orchestrator Workflow Execution
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Manage the Identity and Access Management Tab
Objective 7.2 - Manage Cloud Accounts
Objective 7.3 - Manage Cloud Zones
Objective 7.4 - Manage Projects
Objective 7.5 - Manage Image Mappings
Objective 7.6 - Manage Flavor Mappings
Objective 7.7 - Manage Capability and Constraint Tags
Objective 7.8 - Manage Storage Profiles
Objective 7.9 - Manage Network Profiles
Objective 7.10 - Create and Manage Blueprints
Objective 7.11 - Create and Manage Blueprint Versions
Objective 7.12 - Manage Extensibility/Subscription
Objective 7.13 - Deploy Catalog Items
Objective 7.14 - Manage Deployments
Objective 7.15 - Describe Kubernetes Clusters
Objective 7.16 - Customize a Deployment using cloudConfig and cloud-init
Objective 7.17 - Create Service Broker Content Sources
Objective 7.18 - Configure Content Sharing
Objective 7.19 - Create and Manage Custom Forms
Objective 7.20 - Manage Policies
Objective 7.21 – Manage Notifications
QUESTION 1
When considering the architecture of a clustered deployment of VMware vRealize
Automation, which two components will require the configuration of an external
load balancer? (Choose two.)
A. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
B. vRealize Automation
C. VMware Identity Manager
D. PostgreSQL Database
E. vCenter Server
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 An administrator is tasked with creating cloud zones for an existing Amazon
Web Services (AWS) cloud account.
Which type of compute resource can be added to the cloud zone?
A. Cluster
B. Elastic Cloud Compute (EC2) Instances
C. Availability Zones
D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An administrator configures cloud accounts for vSphere, Amazon Web Services
and Google Cloud Platform.
Each public cloud account has a single region configured, with a single cloud
zone associated with each.
Company policy states that all development workloads should be deployed to the
public cloud. The
administrator wants to ensure that when creating blueprints for this project an
appropriate constraint tag is
specified to meet the placement policy and that App-Dev users are allowed to
select whether to deploy the
machine to production or development. The tagging strategy states that
development environments should be
tagged with “dev” and production environments should be tagged “prod”.
Which two actions should the administrator take to ensure the objective is met?
(Choose two.)
A. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:prod as the
key/value pair.
B. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:prod as the
key/value pair.
C. Add a capability tag to each public cloud zone, using env:dev as the
key/value pair.
D. Add a capability tag to each vSphere cloud zone, using env:dev as the
key/value pair.
E. Add a capability tag to each cloud account, using env:prod as the key/value
pair.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 What are two purposes of projects in vRealize Automation? (Choose two.)
A. Add cloud accounts
B. Map compute resources to users and groups
C. Organize image mappings
D. Create tenants
E. Configure custom naming
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Which vRealize Suite product helps an administrator understand the monetary
impact of individual deployments and manage costs in vRealize Automation?
A. vRealize Log Insight
B. vRealize Operations
C. vRealize Network Insight
D. vRealize Suite Lifecycle Manager
Description The Network Security Analyst designation recognizes your ability to
implement network security management and analytics using Fortinet security
devices.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 5 Certification
We recommend this course for network and security professionals who require the
expertise to centrally manage, analyze, and report on Fortinet security devices.
Program Requirements You must successfully pass a minimum of any two Fortinet NSE 5 certification
exams:
To prepare for the certification exams, we recommend that you take the
corresponding NSE 5 product courses. The courses are optional.
About the NSE 5 Exams
These exams are available at Pearson VUE test center.
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiClient 6.0
Exam series: NSE5_FCT-6.0
Number of questions: 30
Time allowed to complete: 60 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiClient 6.0
Status: Registration ends August 31, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiSIEM 5.1 Exam series: NSE5_FSM-5.1
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English
Product version: FortiSIEM 5.1
Status: Registration ends September 30, 2020
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiManager 6.2
Exam series: NSE5_FMG-6.2
Number of questions: 35
Time allowed to complete: 70 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiManager 6.2
Status: Available
Fortinet NSE 5 - FortiAnalyzer 6.2 Exam series: NSE5_FAZ-6.2
Number of questions: 25
Time allowed to complete: 50 minutes
Language: English and Japanese
Product version: FortiAnalyzer 6.2
Status: Available
QUESTION 1
Which two of the following must you configure on FortiAnalyzer to email a
FortiAnalyzer report externally?
(Choose two.)
A. Mail server
B. Output profile
C. SFTP server
D. Report scheduling
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2 For which two purposes would you use the command set log checksum? (Choose
two.)
A. To help protect against man-in-the-middle attacks during log upload from
FortiAnalyzer to an SFTP server
B. To prevent log modification or tampering
C. To encrypt log communications
D. To send an identical set of logs to a second logging server
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 You are using RAID with a FortiAnalyzer that supports software RAID, and one
of the hard disks on FortiAnalyzer has failed.
What is the recommended method to replace the disk?
A. Shut down FortiAnalyzer and then replace the disk
B. Downgrade your RAID level, replace the disk, and then upgrade your RAID level
C. Clear all RAID alarms and replace the disk while FortiAnalyzer is still
running
D. Perform a hot swap
BCBA The purpose of the Board Certified Behavior Analyst® (BCBA®) examination is
to assess knowledge of the BCBA/BCaBA Task List (4th ed.) at a level consistent
with that of an entry-level behavior analyst. Before taking the BCBA
examination, you must apply to the BACB and provide the requested documentation
showing that you have met all eligibility requirements.
The BCBA examination is comprised of 160 multiple-choice questions, 10 of which
are ungraded pilot questions. Each question has four possible answers. You have
four hours to complete the examination.
Complete applications* are accepted on a continual basis. When your application
for initial certification is approved, you will receive an "authorization to
test" email, which will include scheduling instructions. Once you receive that
email, you may schedule your certification examination online with Pearson Vue
and select a date, time, and location that works for you.
*A completed application includes: Full payment received
Online application submitted and complete
All supporting documents (e.g., university transcript, Experience Verification
Forms) and any additional documentation (e.g., degree equivalency evaluation
documentation, coursework evaluation documentation, degree evaluation
documentation) received.
Content Development The BCBA examination reflects the best practices in behavior analysis.
Industry experts develop the examination, which is based on the results of a
formal Job Task Analysis. The BACB follows nationally accepted standards for
test development that include the use of subject matter experts and extensive
surveys.
QUESTION 1 A behavior analyst is adhering to which underlying assumption of behavior
analysis when she conducts several tests of her treatment before she writes it
in a formal behavior program?
A. Determinism
B. Law of parsimony
C. Empiricism
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Providing a complete description of one’s procedures in a behavior analytic
study of classroom management techniques is adhering to which dimensions of
behavior analysis?
A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Describing behavior program procedures in terms of the basic principles of
behavior is adhering to which dimension of behavior analysis?
A. Conceptually systematic
B. Applied
C. Technological
D. Analytic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When asked why a certain behavior happened, the behavior analyst states that
the behavior “came out of nowhere.” If the behavior analyst meant what he said,
he is violating the assumption of
__________________.
A. Philosophical doubt
B. Determinism
C. Technological
D. Being conceptually systematic
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which of the following is NOT a dimension of applied behavior analysis?
A. Effective
B. Technological
C. Applied
D. Empirical
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 A behavior analyst is measuring the time it takes for a client to say,
“You’re welcome” after the staff says,
“Thank you.” The behavior analyst is measuring __________________.
A. Frequency
B. Duration
C. Inter-response time
D. Latency
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which measure would probably be the best measure for crying?
Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top
of Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Azure data services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Microsoft Azure data
services and Microsoft SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a
variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including
applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security, and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the
quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance
of beta exams.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator
Associate
Skills measured
Plan and implement data platform resources (15-20%)
Implement a secure environment (15-20%)
Monitor and optimize operational resources (15-20%)
Optimize query performance (5-10%)
Perform automation of tasks (10-15%)
Plan and implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment
(15-20%)
Perform administration by using T-SQL (10-15%)
Audience Profile Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management
specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built
on top of SQL Server and Azure Data Services.
The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects
of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Azure Data Services
and SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and
tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using
T-SQL for administrative management purposes.
This role is responsible for management, availability, security and performance
monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role
works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data
platform solutions.
Skills Measured NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended
to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive
or exhaustive.
NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will
only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).
Plan and Implement Data Platform Resources (15-20%) Deploy resources by using manual methods
• deploy database offerings on selected platforms
• configure customized deployment templates
• apply patches and updates for hybrid and IaaS deployment
Recommend an appropriate database offering based on specific requirements • evaluate requirements for the deployment
• evaluate the functional benefits/impact of possible database offerings
• evaluate the scalability of the possible database offering
• evaluate the HA/DR of the possible database offering
• evaluate the security aspects of the possible database offering
Configure resources for scale and performance • configure Azure SQL database/elastic pools for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL managed instances for scale and performance
• configure SQL Server in Azure VMs for scale and performance
• calculate resource requirements
• evaluate database partitioning techniques, such as database sharding
Evaluate a strategy for moving to Azure • evaluate requirements for the migration
• evaluate offline or online migration strategies
• evaluate requirements for the upgrade
• evaluate offline or online upgrade strategies
Implement a migration or upgrade strategy for moving to Azure
• implement an online migration strategy
• implement an offline migration strategy
• implement an online upgrade strategy
• implement an offline upgrade strategy
Implement a Secure Environment (15-20%)
Configure database authentication by using platform and database tools
• configure Azure AD authentication
• create users from Azure AD identities
• configure security principals
Configure database authorization by using platform and database tools
• configure database and object-level permissions using graphical tools
• apply principle of least privilege for all securables
Implement security for data at rest • implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
• implement object-level encryption
• implement Dynamic Data Masking
• implement Azure Key Vault and disk encryption for Azure VMs
Implement security for data in transit • configure SQL DB and database-level firewall rules
• implement Always Encrypted
• configure Azure Data Gateway
Implement compliance controls for sensitive data • apply a data classification strategy
• configure server and database audits
• implement data change tracking
• perform vulnerability assessment
Monitor and Optimize Operational Resources (15-20%)
Monitor activity and performance
• prepare an operational performance baseline
• determine sources for performance metrics
• interpret performance metrics
• assess database performance by using Azure SQL Database Intelligent
Performance
• configure and monitor activity and performance at the infrastructure, server,
service, and
database levels
Implement performance-related maintenance tasks • implement index maintenance tasks
• implement statistics maintenance tasks
• configure database auto-tuning
• automate database maintenance tasks
o Azure SQL agent jobs, Azure automation, SQL server agent jobs
• manage storage capacity
Identify performance-related issues • configure Query Store to collect performance data
• identify sessions that cause blocking
• assess growth/fragmentation of databases and logs
• assess performance-related database configuration parameters
o including AutoClose, AutoShrink, AutoGrowth
Configure resources for optimal performance • configure storage and infrastructure resources
o optimize IOPS, throughput, and latency
o optimize tempdb performance
o optimize data and log files for performance
• configure server and service account settings for performance
• configure Resource Governor for performance
Configure a user database for optimal performance
• implement database-scoped configuration
• configure compute resources for scaling
• configure Intelligent Query Processing (IQP)
Optimize Query Performance (5-10%)
Review query plans
• determine the appropriate type of execution plan
o live Query Statistics, Actual Execution Plan, Estimated Execution Plan,
Showplan
• identify problem areas in execution plans
• extract query plans from the Query Store
Evaluate performance improvements
• determine the appropriate Dynamic Management Views (DMVs) to gather query
performance information
• identify performance issues using DMVs
• identify and implement index changes for queries
• recommend query construct modifications based on resource usage
• assess the use of hints for query performance
Review database table and index design
• identify data quality issues with duplication of data
• identify normal form of database
• assess index design for performance
• validate data types defined for columns
• recommend table and index storage including filegroups
• evaluate table partitioning strategy
• evaluate the use of compression for tables and indexes
Perform Automation of Tasks (10-15%)
Create scheduled tasks
• manage schedules for regular maintenance jobs
• configure multi-server automation
• configure notifications for task success/failure/non-completion
Evaluate and implement an alert and notification strategy
• create event notifications based on metrics
• create event notifications for Azure resources
• create alerts for server configuration changes
• create tasks that respond to event notifications
Manage and automate tasks in Azure
• perform automated deployment methods for resources
• automate Backups
• automate performance tuning and patching
• implement policies by using automated evaluation modes
Plan and Implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
Environment (15-20%)
Recommend an HADR strategy for a data platform solution
• recommend HADR strategy based on RPO/RTO requirements
• evaluate HADR for hybrid deployments
• evaluate Azure-specific HADR solutions
• identify resources for HADR solutions
Test an HADR strategy by using platform, OS and database tools
• test HA by using failover
• test DR by using failover or restore
Perform backup and restore a database by using database tools
• perform a database backup with options
• perform a database restore with options
• perform a database restore to a point in time
• configure long-term backup retention
Configure DR by using platform and database tools
• configure replication
• configure Azure Site Recovery for a database offering
Configure HA using platform, OS and database tools
• create an Availability Group
• integrate a database into an Availability Group
• configure quorum options for a Windows Server Failover Cluster
• configure an Availability Group listener
Perform Administration by Using T-SQL (10-15%)
Examine system health
• evaluate database health using DMVs
• evaluate server health using DMVs
• perform database consistency checks by using DBCC
Monitor database configuration by using T-SQL
• assess proper database autogrowth configuration
• report on database free space
• review database configuration options
Perform backup and restore a database by using T-SQL
• prepare databases for AlwaysOn Availability Groups
• perform transaction log backup
• perform restore of user databases
• perform database backups with options
• configure permissions for users to access database objects
• configure permissions by using custom roles
QUESTION 1 You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter.
The instance contains a 4-TB database named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?
A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have 20 Azure SQL databases provisioned by using the vCore purchasing
model.
You plan to create an Azure SQL Database elastic pool and add the 20 databases.
Which three metrics should you use to size the elastic pool to meet the demands
of your workload? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. total size of all the databases
B. geo-replication support
C. number of concurrently peaking databases * peak CPU utilization per database
D. maximum number of concurrent sessions for all the databases
E. total number of databases * average CPU utilization per database
Correct Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION 3 You have a new Azure SQL database. The database contains a column that
stores confidential information.
You need to track each time values from the column are returned in a query. The
tracking information must be
stored for 365 days from the date the query was executed.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Turn on auditing and write audit logs to an Azure Storage account.
B. Add extended properties to the column.
C. Turn on Advanced Data Security for the Azure SQL server.
D. Apply sensitivity labels named Highly Confidential to the column.
E. Turn on Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
